Before voting "guilty", a question to FPA: The relationship of the parties may be important. The trader said: "I initially employed a fund management company named PrimeFund FX to TRADE my $10k account. They insisted on using BDFX as the broker. They lost about 80% of my account ----" Did PrimeFund FX open and traded the account with BDFX as principal of the trader or did the trader sent his money to BDFX directly in his own name from his bank account? ("They" insisted on BDFX ---"They" lost about 80% of my account ----" "They" being PrimeFund FX) In short, has the trader got a case against BDFX or should he ask for his remaining 20% back from his fund management company Prime Fund FX?